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Exam Code: ST0-248
Exam Name: Symantec Storage Foundation 6.1 for UNIX Technical Assessment
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
ST0-248 Exam Tests Total Q&A: 345 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-29,2014

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NO.1 Which command is used to view the datadg disk group configuration that would be restored
from a backup?
A. vxconfigrestore -l datadg
B. vxconfigrestore -c datadg
C. vxconfigrestore -v datadg
D. vxconfigrestore -p datadg
Answer: D

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NO.2 When should an administrator use the remount option with the mount command on a local
Veritas File System (VxFS)?
A. if the file system was accidentally unmounted
B. when updating mount options
C. after a file system corruption
D. to mount the file system in multiple places
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command prevents Veritas Volume Manager from allocating space on disk DISK_8
when volumes are created without specifying disk allocation?
A. vxdisk set reserve=on DISK_8
B. vxdisk reserve DISK_8
C. vxedit set reserve=on DISK_8
D. vxedit reserve DISK_8
Answer: C

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NO.4 The datadg disk group is defined as the default disk group for a system. Which disk group name
should be specified with the vxdctl defaultdg command to clear this default?
A. nulldg
B. nodg
C. bootdg
D. rootdg
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which command displays the number of paths to the disk DISK01?
A. vxdisklistpath DISK01
B. vxdiskgetpath DISK01
C. vxddladmgetsubpaths DISK01
D. vxdisk list DISK01
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A. vxedit
B. vxassist
C. vxremove
D. vxevac
E. vxmirror
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which command can be used to display the I/O policy for an enclosure?
A. vxdmpadm getattr enclosure enclosure_name iopolicy
B. vxdmpadm showattr enclosure enclosure_name iopolicy
C. vxdmpadm listattr enclosure enclosure_name iopolicy
D. vxdmpadm display enclosure enclosure_name iopolicy
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Veritas Volume Manager command permanently removes a disk from Volume Manager
control?
A. vxvolunsetup
B. vxdg deport
C. vxdiskunsetup
D. vxdisk init
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2070-981
Exam Name: IBM FileNet Content Manager V5.2, Specialist
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C2070-981 Real Questions Total Q&A: 127 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-29,2014

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NO.1 A company is building a solution and wants to restrict the choices for a field to choices defined
by the design of the application.
Which data type can be used when creating a choice list?
A. Float
B. Integer
C. Boolean
D. DateTime
Answer: B

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NO.2 If the following tree in a nested choice list is selected (Branch1 -> Branch2 -> Branch3 ->
Branch4), what is stored as the value: (assume the values below represent the actual values of the
selections, not just the display value)?
A. Branch4
B. Branch3->Branch4
C. Branch2->Branch3->Branch4
D. Branch1->Branch2->Branch3->Branch4
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the recommended approach for load balancing an Enterprise JavaBeans (EJB) transport
of the Content Engine?
A. Using a IBM http plugin.
B. Using a software load balancer.
C. Using a hardware load balancer.
D. Using a native Application Server load balancing software.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In which two scenarios should the Content Consistency Checker be used? (choose two.)
A. Content Engine is performing slow.
B. If search templates are not working.
C. After restoring a storage area from backup media.
D. To troubleshoot Fixed Content Device connectivity.
E. If users are unable to view the content of a document when the content is stored in a file storage
area, even when they have view-content permissions on the document.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 What P8 domain level entity allows specific meta data attributes to be identified that control
the effective access of an object in conjunction with the object's Access Control List (ACL)?
A. Marking sets.
B. Storage area.
C. Add-on feature.
D. Security inheritance.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the Content Engine domain hierarchy?
A. domain > site > virtual server > server
B. domain > site > server > virtual server
C. domain > server > site > virtual server
D. site > domain > server > virtual server
Answer: A

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NO.7 Document entry templates allow the designer to force values for which of the following items?
A. Location, class, properties, and security.
B. Class, properties, security, but not location.
C. Location, class, security, but not properties.
D. Location, class, properties, but not security.
Answer: A

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NO.8 To verify a file storage area, you log onto the machine where the Content Engine Server is
installed and examine the contents of the file storage area directory. This directory should contain
which of the following objects?
A. Two subdirectories -- content and inbound
B. Three subdirectories -- content, inbound and outbound
C. An XML file, named fn_stakefile, and two subdirectories, content and inbound
D. An XML file, named fn_stakefile, and two subdirectories, inbound and outbound
Answer: C

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Test information:

• Number of questions: 72
• Time allowed in minutes: 120
• Required passing score: 65%
• Test languages: English

Related certifications:

• IBM Certified Specialist - FileNet Content Manager V5.2

• This multiple-choice test contains questions requiring single and multiple answers.  For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.  
• This test is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test.  As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

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Exam Code: M2020-733
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Statistics Sales Mastery Test v1
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M2020-733 Exam Cram Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-29,2014

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NO.1 A prospect who has been using spreadsheets for years is keen to make a switch to a
professional program for his data analysis needs. He is curious about how easy it is going to be.
Which statement would best bring the value of IBM SPSS Statistics to your conversation with the
prospect?
A. Spreadsheets are prone to errors.
B. IBM SPSS Statistics is professional statistical analysis software which has been used by a variety of
customers.
C. IBM SPSS Statistics has extensive and easy to use analytics, better output and improved accuracy
over spreadsheets.
D. IBM SPSS Statistics is just as easy to use as the currently used spreadsheet option.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A Telco company is looking to reduce churn by identifying customers most likely to leave. The
following is a list of the requirements for this initiative.
Which requirement indicates this initiative is NOT a good fit for IBM SPSS Statistics?
A. Solution must export results to a database with an ODBC driver.
B. Solution must be capable of creating a wide range of graphs and charts types.
C. Solution must be able to run multiple algorithms simultaneously.
D. Business Analysts should be able to learn how to use the application with appropriate training.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Complete this statement.
IBM SPSS Statistics Programmability Extension enables developers and end users to extend IBM SPSS
Statistics functionality with external programming languages such as:
A. R,Python,.NET version of Visual Basic and Java.
B. R,C,C++and Java.
C. Python,R,VC++ and SQL.
D. C#,Python,Javascript and R.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Who is most likely to benefit the most from using IBM SPSS Statistics?
A. A Business Analyst at a retail organization looking to quickly identify the products most commonly
sold together.
B. A Statistician who needs to supply reports to management in Excel.
CA Researcher using IBM SPSS Data Collection for surveys who wants to display
crosstabs online.
C. A marketing analyst who needs to code open ended survey comments.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which modules are part of IBM SPSS Statistics Standard?
A. IBM SPSS Statistics Base,IBM SPSS Custom Tables,IBM SPSS Regression,IBM SPSS Advanced
Statistics
B. IBM SPSS Statistics Base,IBM SPSS Custom Tables,IBM SPSS Categories,IBM SPSS Decision Trees
C. IBM SPSS Statistics Base,IBM SPSS Complex Samples,IBM SPSS Conjoint,IBM SPSS Neural Networks
D. IBM SPSS Statistics Base,IBM SPSS Custom Tables,IBM SPSS Forecasting,IBM SPSS
AdvancedStatistics
Answer: A

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NO.6 A prospect you have been actively engaged with is considering whether to add additional tools
to their suite of analytic tools or to continue using spreadsheets. Which is a positive indication the
prospect will purchase IBM SPSS Statistics?
A. The IT department will make the final decision and prefers software that is data agnostic and open
source.
B. The team of analysts are data scientists that prefer to code their statistical algorithms.
C. The IT department is in favor of moving all its software applications to the cloud.
D. The COO has a strategic priority of pushing analytics to individuals in multiple divisions throughout
the enterprise.
Answer: D

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Upon completion of the recommended test preparation materials, you are ready to take the software sales mastery test.
Please see sales mastery test policy for important information on non-proctored online test retake policy and test registration/cancellation policies.
Skill name:  IBM SPSS Statistics Sales Professional v1
PartnerWorld skill code: 32018017
Your sales training should not end here. IBM encourages you to deepen your sales skills by attending additional seminars, teleconferences, self-paced study, etc. Refer to the IBM PartnerWorld Training and Certification page.
* Passing this test counts towards PartnerWorld Premier and Advanced membership levels. It also entitles you to use the mastery qualification title on your business card.  This test meets the sales skill criteria for the Software Value Incentive/Software Value Plus.

Test information

• Number of questions: 41
• Time allowed in minutes: 60
• Required passing score: 68%
• Languages: English

IBM Value Package sales mastery test benefit
Want to take this test for free? You can if your company has a Value Package.  Go here for more details!

PartnerWorld
After you pass a test, be sure to add your Candidate ID to your company's PartnerWorld profile!  You will receive an e-mail from the test vendor after the test which will provide your Candidate ID.

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Exam Code: C_HANAIMP141
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2014) - SAP HANA
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C_HANAIMP141 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-29,2014

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NO.1 You are using SAP Landscape Transformation to replicate data into SAP HANA.
Which of the following can you use to define the schema that the replicated data populates?
A. Advanced replication settings (transaction iuuc_repl_content)
B. Change Authoring Schema in the Quick Launch view
C. Data Provisioning in the Quick Launch view
D. Configuration & Monitoring Dashboard (transaction LTR)
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following can be grouped when multiple schemas exist in an SAP HANA database?
A. Information models
B. Data tables
C. Packages
D. Users
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can you define conditions and actions in a decision table? (Choose threE.
A. Use ABAP routines
B. Use conditional expressions
C. Use CE functions
D. Use date operations
E. Use mathematical operations
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 Which of the following actions must you perform in an SAP HANA system to transport content
to another SAP HANA system? (Choose two)
A. Generate and save an export file to a shared directory.
B. Assign the content repository to a transport request.
C. Mass copy the content repository into the other SAP HANA system.
D. Assign the package to a delivery unit.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 What do you have to define in an attribute view to reduce the initial amount of data selected
from the data foundation tables?
A. A static filter value on any column in the data foundation tables
B. A column marked as "Hidden" in the output structure
C. A restricted column in the output structure
D. A dynamic filter value on a measure in the attribute view
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are reviewing the execution plan of an SQL statement. You want to find out which plan
operators (POPs) have been executed in parallel and for how long each of them has been active.
Where can you accomplish this?
A. In SAP NetWeaver: DBA Cockpit (DBACOCKPIT) SQL Plan Cache EXPLAIN (graphically)
B. In SAP HANA studio: Display the Timeline view via Window Show View Other ... Plan Visualizer
Timeline
C. In SAP HANA studio: Administration Console Performance Job Progress
D. In HDB admin -> Performance trace Show Column Plans
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following describes an SAP HANA analytic view?
A. It is a set of tables joined together in a star schema.
B. It is a copy of data after transformation.
C. It is a reusable object in attribute views.
D. It is a materialized set of data.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which programming language do you use for SAP Landscape Transformation based
transformation rules?
A. SQLScript
B. Java
C. ABAP
D. JavaScript
Answer: C

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The "SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2014) - SAP HANA" certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses required knowledge in the area of the SAP HANA SPS07 for the profile of an SAP HANA application consultant. This certificate builds on the basic knowledge gained through related SAP HANA training and preferably refined by practical experience within an SAP HANA project team, whereby the consultant applies acquired knowledge in this specialist area practically in projects.
Test C_HANAIMP141 information:
No. Questions: 80
Duration: 180 Mins
Cut Score: 59%
Available Languages: English, Japanese

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Exam Code: C-HANAIMP141
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2014) - SAP HANA
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
C-HANAIMP141 Test Questions Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-29,2014

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NO.1 You want to run a report on data with multiple currencies. You want to allow end users to
select the target currency at run time.
Which option does SAP recommend for defining the currency conversion?
A. A calculated column in an analytic view
B. Currency conversion during data load
C. Measures enabled for conversion in an analytic view
D. A CE_CONVERSION function in a calculation view
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following tools use SQL to communicate with SAP HANA? (Choose threE.
A. SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence
B. SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for OLAP
C. SAP BusinessObjects Information Design Tool
D. SAP BusinessObjects Analysis, edition for Microsoft Office
E. SAP BusinessObjects Dashboards
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Which of the following can be grouped when multiple schemas exist in an SAP HANA database?
A. Information models
B. Data tables
C. Packages
D. Users
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are using SAP Landscape Transformation to replicate data into SAP HANA.
Which of the following can you use to define the schema that the replicated data populates?
A. Advanced replication settings (transaction iuuc_repl_content)
B. Change Authoring Schema in the Quick Launch view
C. Data Provisioning in the Quick Launch view
D. Configuration & Monitoring Dashboard (transaction LTR)
Answer: D

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NO.5 How can you define conditions and actions in a decision table? (Choose threE.
A. Use ABAP routines
B. Use conditional expressions
C. Use CE functions
D. Use date operations
E. Use mathematical operations
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 Which programming language do you use for SAP Landscape Transformation based
transformation rules?
A. SQLScript
B. Java
C. ABAP
D. JavaScript
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are reviewing the execution plan of an SQL statement. You want to find out which plan
operators (POPs) have been executed in parallel and for how long each of them has been active.
Where can you accomplish this?
A. In SAP NetWeaver: DBA Cockpit (DBACOCKPIT) SQL Plan Cache EXPLAIN (graphically)
B. In SAP HANA studio: Display the Timeline view via Window Show View Other ... Plan Visualizer
Timeline
C. In SAP HANA studio: Administration Console Performance Job Progress
D. In HDB admin -> Performance trace Show Column Plans
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following would you use to determine the engines that are used when an
information model is queried? (Choose two)
A. SQL plan cache
B. Timeline
C. Explain plan
D. Visualize plan
Answer: C,D

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The "SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2014) - SAP HANA" certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses required knowledge in the area of the SAP HANA SPS07 for the profile of an SAP HANA application consultant. This certificate builds on the basic knowledge gained through related SAP HANA training and preferably refined by practical experience within an SAP HANA project team, whereby the consultant applies acquired knowledge in this specialist area practically in projects.
Test C_HANAIMP141 information:
No. Questions: 80
Duration: 180 Mins
Cut Score: 59%
Available Languages: English, Japanese

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Exam Code: M2170-659
Exam Name: IBM Smarter Cities Sales Mastery Test v1
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
M2170-659 Braindumps Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-28,2014

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NO.1 What are the three Smarter Cities service areas that IBM has prioritized to support overall
city livability, so that leaders can meet and exceed citizen expectations?
A. Economic. Social. Political
B. Planning and Administration. Political, Social
C. Planning and Management. Technological. Human
D. Planning and Management. Infrastructure, Human
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of these are the three main aspects of Curam's approach to providing Smarter Social
Programs?
A. Outcome derived. Individual Centered. Integrated Service Delivery
B. Policy focused, Budget Centered. Integrated Service Delivery
C. Outcome focused. Family Centered. Integrated Service Delivery
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 IBM's Smarter Cities solution portfolio is expansive, which of these solutions are currently
available in meeting the Planning and Management service area needs?
A. Operations insight
B. Law enforcement and public safety
C. Building management
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.4 "Pressure to better inform public transit commuters and improve commuter experience" is a
typical pain point of which of the 3 Intelligent Transportation target segments:
A. Citizen Traffic Agency
B. State or Province Department of Transportation
C. City Public Transit Agency
D. National Transportation Strategy Council
Answer: A

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NO.5 Curam is an important component of IBM's Smarter Cities strategy by providing the solutions
for which of the Smarter Cities service areas?
A. Infrastructure
B. Planning and Management
C. Human
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the core capability of IBM's Intelligent Operations Center?
A. Intelligent capture and archiving of operational information from multiple sources
B. Collecting and analyzing data, while automating a collaborative response
C. Staffing of Operations Centers for high touch human to human emergency response
D. Reporting of citizen responses for statistics collection
Answer: A

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Upon completion of the IBM  Smarter Cities Sales study material, you are ready to take the IBM Smarter Cities Sales Mastery Test v1 to become an IBM  Smarter Cities Sales Professional v1*.

Please see sales mastery test policy for important information on non-proctored online test retake policy and test registration/cancellation policies.
Please see FAQs (link is at the bottom of the page).

Skill name: IBM Smarter Cities Sales Professional v1
PartnerWorld skill code: 32016404

Your sales training should not end here. IBM encourages you to deepen your sales skills by attending additional seminars, teleconferences, self-paced study, etc. Refer to the IBM PartnerWorld Training and Certification page.
* Passing this test counts towards PartnerWorld Premier and Advanced membership levels. It also entitles you to use the IBM Smarter Cities Sales Professional title on your business card. This test meets the sales skill criteria for the Software Value Incentive/Software Value Plus.
Test information
Number of questions: 42
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 73%
Languages: English, French, German, Italian, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Spanish Castilian


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Exam Code: 1Y0-351
Exam Name: Citrix NetScaler 10.5 Essentials and Networking
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
1Y0-351 PDF VCE Total Q&A: 157 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-28,2014

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NO.1 A network engineer has started at a new company and has been instructed to restrict access to
an external facing VIP to selected third party clients, based on their source IP address range.
What could the engineer do to accomplish this task?
A. Enable USNIP mode on the Netscaler.
B. Enable the host route option on the external VIP.
C. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
D. Create a SNIP address in the external VLAN limited to the source IP addresses.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Scenario: A network engineer suspects that there is a duplex mismatch in the network
configuration. The NSIP address is 10.10.1.206.
How can the administrator verify the configuration in this scenario?
A. Run the 'netstat -r' command.
B. Run the show IP 10.10.1.206 command.
C. Run the start nstrace -level 10 command.
D. Check for the interface configuration in the GUI.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which expression must an engineer use to prevent compression of Cascading Style Sheets?
A. HTTP.RES.BODY(0).CONTAINS("text/css")
B. HTTP.REQ.BODY(0).CONTAINS("text/css")
C. HTTP.RES.HEADER("Content-Type").CONTAINS("text/css")
D. HTTP.REQ.HEADER("Content-Type").CONTAINS("text/css")
Answer: C

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NO.4 Scenario: A NetScaler environment uses two-factor authentication and the second
authentication method is AD. A user logs in to the environment but does NOT receive access to the
resources that the user should have access to.
How can an engineer determine the AD authentication issue on the NetScaler?
A. Check NSlogs.
B. Use nsconmsg.
C. Use the cat aaad.debug command.
D. Check the authorization configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Scenario: The network engineer has created a monitor and bound it to a service group
containing four web servers to verify that the web application responds. During routine maintenance
one of the web servers is shut down; however, the server state remains UP and user requests are still
attempting to communicate with the server.
What could be causing this problem?
A. The server has been disabled.
B. The monitor is not bound at the correct bind point.
C. Health monitoring is disabled for the service group.
D. The NetScaler configuration has not been saved since before the monitor was bound.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Scenario: The network engineer is unable to access a specific SSL site through the NetScaler.
While reviewing traces on the NetScaler, the network engineer noticed "Handshake" failures from
the server.
These handshake failures could be the result of the virtual server __________. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
A. only allowing TLS
B. not allowing SSLv3
C. not allowing correct ciphers
D. configured to demand client authentication
Answer: C

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NO.7 A network engineer should use the Advanced tab when configuring load balancing to enable
__________. (Choose the correct option to answer the question.)
A. SSL offloading
B. Integrated caching
C. EdgeSight Monitoring
D. Direct Server Return Mode
Answer: D

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NO.8 Scenario: An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on
the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, but notices that the
service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors' tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Answer: B

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1Y0-351
Citrix NetScaler 10.5 Essentials and Networking
概要：
The Citrix NetScaler 10.5 Essentails and Networking exam is divided into the following sections:
Configuring basic NetScaler settings;
Configuring network-related settings of the NetScaler implementation;
Securing the NetScaler implementation and traffic;
Configuring Load Balancing on NetScaler for backend servers and traffic;
Configuring SSL Offloading;
Configuring acceleration and optimization of traffic-handling;
Customizing NetScaler traffic-handling;
Monitoring of network-related activities and performance using monitoring tools;
Troubleshooting issues on NetScaler
事前準備コース：
CNS-205　Citrix NetScaler 10 Essentials and Networking
または
CNS-205　Citrix NetScaler 10 Essentials and Networking
関連する項目：
試験 Exam 1Y0-350　Citrix NetScaler 10 Essentials and Networking
資格 CCP-N（Citrix Certified Professional - Networking）

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Exam Code: 3M00030A
Exam Name: Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) Avaya Professional Design Specialist (APDS)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
3M00030A Exam Tests Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-28,2014

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NO.1 Which are capabilities of Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS)? (Select four.)
A. Outbound calling campaigns
B. Home worker agents
C. Customer satisfaction surveys
D. Call recording
E. Multimedia agents
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.2 Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) comes with two sample Supervisor User Accounts called
Reporting 1 and Reporting 2, which are some of the tasks that the Supervisor Users can perform?
(Select five.)
A. Assigning agent to skills
B. Producing all historical reporting
C. Adding Administrator Users
D. Producing all real-time reporting
E. Managing agent and skills
F. Making minimal configuration changes, for instance add activity codes, view skill setup, and view
agent configurations
Answer: A,B,C,D,F

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NO.3 Scenario:
In connection with a CCT implementation project for the Government of Mourito, Avaya has
partnered with a leading Distributor in the country. Avaya is required to import certain telecom
equipment into Mourito. Avaya arranges for the shipment and same reaches Mourito port. In order
to release the shipment, a no-objection letter is required from the customs unit in charge of the port.
This is standard operating procedure in Mourito vis-a-vis overseas shipments. Typically, it takes about
7-14 working days to receive the letter. The Distributor, citing project exigency, pays a sum of $150 to
a senior customs official and obtains the NOC. What prompts the Distributor to make the payment is
that facilitation payments are customary and legal in Mourito.
What breach, if any, has the Distributor committed? (Select one.)
A. None, the payment made by the Distributor constituted facilitation payment which is customary
under the laws of Mourito.
B. The Distributor has breached Avaya's policy since Avaya prohibits facilitation payments.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following are deployment options for Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS)? (Select
three.)
A. ACCS Software Appliance Deployment Option
B. ACCS DVD Deployment Option
C. ACCS Small Server Deployment Option
D. ACCS Hardware Appliance Deployment Option
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 For voice calls which are the three integrations to IP Office from Avaya Contact Center Select
(ACCS)? (Select three.)
A. Voice Networking
B. Computer Telephony Integration (CTI) using Telephony Application Program Interface Direct
(TAPID)
C. SIP TR87 for advanced CTI control
D. Sync Service for Users
E. SIP for call control
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 Which are three characteristics of the typical business with fewer than 2,000 Employees / 30 to
250 Agents? (Select three.)
A. The business believes that contact center capabilities are essential
B. The business applies technology to address a business problem
C. The CEO/Owner is most likely the buyer
D. IT is the buyer or strong influencer
E. The business lacks technical knowledge
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 With Avaya Contact Center Select running IP Office Server Edition (SE) on a DL360 server, what
is the maximum capacity for incoming customer calls? (Click and drag the correct option to the space
below.)
A. 125
B. 250
C. 375
D. 187
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two statements best describe the Avaya Midmarket vision? (Select two.)
A. Bring multichannel capabilities with simplicity and value to midsize businesses
B. Simplify the network by extending the cloud all the way up to the end user access point to the
network
C. Move from one-off interactions and transactions to always aware customer experiences
D. Extends our innovation in customer experience management to midsize businesses
Answer: A,C

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3M00030A - Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) Avaya Professional Design Specialist (APDS) Online Test
SynopsisThis curriculum test validates your knowledge and mastery of the requirements and considerations for designing Avaya Contact Center Select.You should be able to correctly and successfully position Avaya products and solutions to address the customer business issues in the early stages of the sales cycle. Please read the questions thoroughly before answering. Some questions are complex and may need to be read twice in order to be understood completely and answered correctly. The assessment has 45 questions and the minimum passing score is 72%.
Avaya Learning PolicyAvaya Learning policy allows three pre-course attempts for all online tests. If you do not pass the test you must re-register to attempt it again. If you have not passed the test after the third attempt, you will need to complete the associated learning activities and call the Avaya Learning Center Help Desk requesting a re-set for that specific test.
Audience
Avaya associates and partners with introductory Solution Design responsibilities
Online Test Topics
This curriculum test validates your mastery of the learning objectives identified in the courses within the APDS – Avaya Contact Center Select curriculum.
Prerequisites
It is recommended that you complete the course within the APDS Avaya Contact Center Select curriculum mentioned above.

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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
70-532 Real Questions Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 12-28,2014

70-532 Actual Test Detail :

 

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NO.1 You need to move the VM.
What should you do?
A. Use the Blob Service REST API
B. Use the Service Management REST API
C. Run the Azure PowerShell Convert-VHD cmdlet.
D. Run the Azure PowerShell New-AzureVMcmdlet
Answer: A

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NO.2 HOTSPOT
You plan to migrate a website named Contoso from one hosting plan to another hosting plan. The
website is currently in a hosting plan named webhostingplan1. You create a resource group named
ContosoGroup.
You create the following PowerShell script by using the Azure PowerShell tools. Line numbers are
included for reference only.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select
No.
Answer:

NO.3 You maintain an application that is used by local food delivery companies. When a customer
requests a delivery, the application sends a message to all of the delivery companies. One company
accepts the request and fulfills the order.
The application currently supports orders of 100 products or fewer. Some of the delivery companies
can now deliver large orders that contain up to 500 products.
You must modify the application so that it supports both small orders and large orders. Messages
about large orders should be sent to only delivery companies that can fulfill them. Messages about
small orders should be sent to all delivery companies.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Service Bus Queue
B. Azure Service Bus Relay
C. Azure Service Bus Topics
D. Azure Service Bus Namespace
Answer: B

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NO.4 A company creates an API and makes it accessible on an Azure website. External partners use
the API occasionally. The website uses the Standard web hosting plan.
Partners report that the first API call in a sequence of API calls occasionally takes longer than
expected to run. Subsequent API calls consistently perform as expected.
You need to ensure that all API calls perform consistently.
What should you do?
A. Configure the website to use the Basic web hosting plan.
B. Enable Always On support.
C. Configure the website to automatically scale.
D. Add a trigger to the web.config file for the website that causes the website to recycle periodically.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You connect to an existing service over the network by using HTTP.
The service listens on HTTP port 80.
You plan to create a test environment for this existing service by using an Azure virtual machine (VM)
that runs Windows Server.
The service must be accessible from the public Internet over HTTP port 8080.
You need to configure the test environment.
Which two actions should you take? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure an endpoint to route traffic from port 8080 to port 80.
B. Configure an endpoint to route traffic from port 80 to port 8080.
C. Ensure that the public IP address is configured as a static IP address.
D. Configure the Windows Server firewall to allow incoming and outgoing traffic on port 8080.
E. Configure the Windows Server firewall to allow incoming and outgoing traffic on port 80.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
Your team uses a proprietary source control product. You use FTP to manually deploy an Azure
website.
You must move your source code from the proprietary source control product to a secure on-
premises Git versioning system. Instead of deploying the website by using FTP.the website must
automatically deploy to Azure each time developers check-in source files.
You need to implement the new deployment strategy.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.7 You deploy an application as a cloud service in Azure.
The application consists of five instances of a web role.
You need to move the web role instances to a different subnet.
Which file should you update?
A. Service definition
B. Diagnostics configuration
C. Service configuration
D. Network configuration
Answer: B

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NO.8 An application sends Azure push notifications to a client application that runs on Windows
Phone, iOS, and Android devices.
Users cannot use the application on some devices. The authentication mechanisms that the
application uses are the source of the problem.
You need to monitor the number of notifications that failed because of authentication errors.
Which three metrics should you monitor? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft Push Notification Service (MPNS) authentication errors
B. External notification system errors
C. Apple Push Notification Service (APNS) authentication errors
D. Channel errors
E. Windows Push Notification Services (WNS) authentication errors
F. Google Cloud Messaging (GCM) authentication errors
Answer: C,D,E

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This exam is for candidates who are experienced in designing, programming, implementing, automating, and monitoring Microsoft Azure solutions. Candidates are also proficient with development tools, techniques, and approaches used to build scalable and resilient solutions.
Test 70-532 Objectives:

Design and implement websites (15-20%)
Create and manage virtual machines (20-25%)
Design and implement cloud services (20-25%)
Design and implement a storage strategy (20-25%)
Manage application and network services (15-20%)